Will all be justified by faith of God and is the child of God justified by their own freewill or by the grace of God? The Scriptures tell us:

Moreover whom he did predestinate, them he also called: and whom he called, them he also justified: and whom he justified, them he also glorified.
(Rom 8:30)

And such were some of you: but ye are washed, but ye are sanctified, but ye are justified in the name of the Lord Jesus, and by the Spirit of our God.
(1Co 6:11)

James then states, “Ye see then how that by works a man is justified, and not by faith only.” (Jam 2:24)

Firstly, we know that man is not justified by the works of the law.

And by him all that believe are justified from all things, from which ye could not be justified by the law of Moses.
(Act 13:39)

Therefore by the deeds of the law there shall no flesh be justified in his sight: for by the law is the knowledge of sin.
(Rom 3:20)

Secondly, how is one justified as described in the Scriptures?

1.justified freely by his grace (Romans 3:24)
2.man is justified by faith (Romans 3:28)
3.justified by his blood (Romans 5:9)
4.justified in the name of the Lord Jesus, and by the Spirit of our God. (1 Corinthians 6:11)
5.justified by the faith of Christ (Galations 2:16)
6.justified by Christ (Galations 2:17)
7.being justified by his grace (Titus 3:7)
8.by works a man is justified, and not by faith only (James 2:24)

You said, “So from the time you were regenerated until the time you believed, you were a born-again unbeliever. Do you not understand why a theology that teaches this is in Scriptural error?”

Response:

Even so faith, if it hath not works, is dead, being alone. Yea, a man may say, Thou hast faith, and I have works: show me thy faith without thy works, and I will show thee my faith by my works. Thou believest that there is one God; thou doest well: the devils also believe, and tremble.
(James 2:17-19)

It is apparent from these verses above that a man may believe, but faith without works he is dead. So a man may have faith, but it does not save if void of works. Therefore one who is unregenerate may not necessarily be an UNBELIEVER prior to conversion, but have an external faith or an assent to the truth that is not saving and does not produce works.

To say what God commands is His desire to save all, this statement frustrates the grace of God because righteousness does not come by the law, but through Christ alone.

This is why the Scriptures speak of a limited atonement and not a universal atonement or a governmental atonement.

Christ died and shed His blood to redeem the elect of God only and not the whole world without exception. Christ said he layed down His life for the sheep. He did NOT say I lay down my life for the sheep and goats.

Matthew 1:21

"And she shall bring forth a son, and thou shalt call his name JESUS: for he shall save his people from their sins."

John in his epistle writes to the beloved (1 John 4:1).

In Acts 17:22-34 Paul is declaring the gospel to the superstitious and idolatrous people of Athens. There is the outward call of the gospel as Christ gave commandment to His disciples, to go into all the world and preach the gospel.

However the preaching of the gospel is only effectual to some and Christ explains this.

“For many are called, but few are chosen.” (Matthew 22:14)

Notice the responses that were made on Mars Hill. Some mocked others were interested and would hear again of it later v.32, but certain believed v. 34.

In Acts 13:48 Paul tells us why those who hear the preached Word believed.

You asked in regards to Acts 17:22-34, “If God's will and desires are not in what he commands, where are they? If he does not really desire all men everywhere to repent as he commands, why are we judged by his commandments? And can we not simply dismiss his commandments without fear of his displeasure?”

To answer your questions, God’s justice requires his holy laws to be kept, however man is exceeding sinful in his nature and daily trespasses against them. The Scriptures teach that man in his natural carnal state is spiritually dead in bondage to sin, Satan and the world. He cannot keep the law no matter how hard he tries nor can he repent in this state. The law teaches us that we are sinners and fallen short of the glory of God and the law condemns the sinner by the wrath and judgment of God.

Man is responsible for the sin he commits and when he breaches the law of God, but he is not responsible for his salvation. In the book of Jonah we see the hand of God that brought the people of Nineveh to repentance and previous to this Jonah admitted that Salvation is of the Lord (Jonah 2:9).

You continually state Jeremiah 31:3 out of context.

Jeremiah 31:3

"The LORD hath appeared of old unto me, saying, Yea, I have loved thee with an everlasting love: therefore with loving-kindness have I drawn thee."

God is speaking to Israel the chosen of God. This everlasting love belongs to them only and not the whole world without exception.

Compare this verse with Galations 6:15,16

15.For in Christ Jesus neither circumcision availeth any thing, nor uncircumcision, BUT A NEW CREATURE.

16And as many as walk according to this rule, peace be on them, and mercy, and ***upon the Israel of God***.

Notice: Paul calls the Gentile Christians of Galatia Israel of God. The Israel of God is the church. The church is the CALLED out ones, which are the CHOSEN and DRAWN ones, predestinated and elect of God before the foundation of the world.

This is why it is so important to compare Scripture with Scripture because you will get lost in the immediate context and make the Word of God contradict itself.

You said, "Luke 2:10, AINAV (all is not all version) And the angel said unto them, Fear not: for, behold, I bring you good tidings of great joy, which shall be to some people."

The verse actually says,

"And the angel said unto them, Fear not: for, behold, I bring you good tidings of great joy, which shall be to ALL people."

It was to all people and not just the Jews but also Gentiles. All meaning Jew and Gentile of every tribe, nation and tongue but NOT all without exception.

19For I through the law am dead to the law, that I might live unto God.
20I am crucified with Christ: nevertheless I live; yet not I, but Christ liveth in me: and the life which I now live in the flesh ***I live by the faith of the Son of God, who loved me, and gave himself for me***.
21***I do not frustrate the grace of God: for if righteousness come by the law, then Christ is dead in vain.***

To say what God commands is His desire to save all, this statement frustrates the grace of God because righteousness does not come by the law, but through Christ alone.

This is why the Scriptures speak of a limited atonement and not a universal atonement or a governmental atonement.

Christ died and shed His blood to redeem the elect of God only and not the whole world without exception. Christ said he layed down His life for the sheep. He did NOT say I lay down my life for the sheep and goats.

Matthew 1:21

"And she shall bring forth a son, and thou shalt call his name JESUS: for he shall save his people from their sins."

John in his epistle writes to the beloved (1 John 4:1).

32And when they heard of the resurrection of the dead, some mocked: and others said, We will hear thee again of this matter.
33So Paul departed from among them.
34Howbeit certain men clave unto him, and believed: among the which was Dionysius the Areopagite, and a woman named Damaris, and others with them.

In Acts 17:22-34 Paul is declaring the gospel to the superstitious and idolatrous people of Athens. There is the outward call of the gospel as Christ gave commandment to His disciples, to go into all the world and preach the gospel.

However the preaching of the gospel is only effectual to some and Christ explains this.

“For many are called, but few are chosen.” (Matthew 22:14)

Notice the responses that were made on Mars Hill. Some mocked others were interested and would hear again of it later v.32, but certain believed v. 34.

In Acts 13:48 Paul tells us why those who hear the preached Word believed.

You asked in regards to Acts 17:22-34, “If God's will and desires are not in what he commands, where are they? If he does not really desire all men everywhere to repent as he commands, why are we judged by his commandments? And can we not simply dismiss his commandments without fear of his displeasure?”

To answer your questions, God’s justice requires his holy laws to be kept, however man is exceeding sinful in his nature and daily trespasses against them. The Scriptures teach that man in his natural carnal state is spiritually dead in bondage to sin, Satan and the world. He cannot keep the law no matter how hard he tries nor can he repent in this state. The law teaches us that we are sinners and fallen short of the glory of God and the law condemns the sinner by the wrath and judgment of God.

Man is responsible for the sin he commits and when he breaches the law of God, but he is not responsible for his salvation. In the book of Jonah we see the hand of God that brought the people of Nineveh to repentance and previous to this Jonah admitted that Salvation is of the Lord (Jonah 2:9).

And yet, what was God's "response" to His foreknowledge about these people? Did He predestine them to salvation? Did He respond to foreseen faith by sending miracles so that they would repent and be saved? Not at all!

The doctrine of "prevenient grace" suggests that God really wants all people to receive salvation, and that He is really "doing all He can" to get the job done. Arminians suggest that God weeps over all lost souls, and that He sends His prevenient grace to all of them, just hoping that some of them will respond. But the God of the Bible is very different from this! Here we see in Matthew 11 that God *knew* what it would take for many people to repent and be saved, and nevertheless *withheld* it! That doesn't sound like God is "doing all He can" to me. And it certainly doesn't bode well for the man-centered doctrine of "prevenient grace".

"So then he has mercy upon whomever he wills, and he hardens the heart of whomever he wills." (Romans 9:18)

You said, "This work is not regeneration, but prevenient grace. It is a work of the Holy Spirit, not of man's doing, but God preparing the sinner."

There is no description of prevenient grace in the Bible only regeneration.

"The Arminian doctrine of prevenient grace fits into their overall scheme of theology and enables them to maintain the doctrine of original sin and yet reject God's Sovereignty in salvation, therefore rejecting unconditional election as well.

But the biggest problem with Arminian "prevenient grace" is that there is no clear Biblical support for it. Not once does Scripture speak of prevenient grace that "enables" salvation without also assuring salvation. The doctrine seems nice to Arminians, but can be found nowhere in the Bible.

You said, "Regeneration is not even mentioned"

Use biblical "logos" logic, which is the Word and put 1+1 together and it equals 2.

The word regeneration is not used in Acts 16, but Christ describes it to Nicodemus as being born again. Regeneration is the first part of salvation and precedes faith.

John 3:3

"Except a man be born again, he cannot see the kingdom of God."

Titus 3:5

"Not by works of righteousness which we have done, but according to his mercy he saved us, by the washing of regeneration, and renewing of the Holy Ghost;"

The gospel is a declaration, there is an external call of the gospel to believe on the Lord Jesus Christ and repent, but it is not effectual to all who hear, except the elect.

Christ said, "For many are called, but few are chosen" (Matthew 22:14)

The jailer was stirred in his heart to ask the question "what must I do to be saved?" because of the acts of God. The Spirit had opened his eyes to his desparate need.

Previous to this he was dead in trespasses and sins and he was not seeking God nor would he, until the Holy Spirit regenerated him.

This agrees with Romans 3:11, " There is NONE that understandeth, there is NONE that seeketh after God."

The ultimate reason the jailor believed is as the Scriptures state:

The phrase "What must I do to be saved?" is in reference to the jailer mentioned in Acts 16:30.

Let us see the acts of God before the jailer asked this question and how his heart was prepared of God.

Acts 16:26-28

And suddenly there was a great earthquake, so that the foundations of the prison were shaken: and immediately all the doors were opened, and every one's bands were loosed. And the keeper of the prison awaking out of his sleep, and seeing the prison doors open, he drew out his sword, and would have killed himself, supposing that the prisoners had been fled. But Paul cried with a loud voice, saying, Do thyself no harm: for we are all here.

Let us examine the sequence of events:

1. A great earthquake.
2. foundation of the prison shaken and bands loosed.
3. jailer would have killed himself
4. Paul intervenes
5. Nobody escapes but remains (That is also a miracle).
6. Then a little later in verse 30 the jailor asked the question? "what must I do to be saved?"

This man was saved by God and His heart was prepared to believe through these mighty acts of God. This is also consistant with Acts 13 and the entire Word of God.

Acts 13:48

You said, "VERY rarely has a Calvinist possessed any of the fruits of the Spirit you cited in Galatians 5, and of those few, none of them would be considered a real hard-line Calvinist."

I agree that there are many professed calvinists that do not possess the fruits of the Spirit. I do not believe that one who is a calvinist is necessarily a Christian, but in being a Christian one grows to acknowledge the doctrines of grace as Scriptual and God-centred, who is born again and led of the Spirit.

You also said,

"I don't understand the meaning of "granting" faith or repentance since each person must repent and believe to be conformed to Christ."

The word grant is a biblical term:

Acts 11:18

"When they heard these things, they held their peace, and glorified God, saying, Then hath God also to the Gentiles GRANTED repentance unto life."

Epeshians 3:16-20