Why does the Spirit have to be situ? Is the Holy Spirit a lesser deity than the Lord Jesus whose command carried power -see for example Lazarus? Is he less than the Father who said let there be light and there was light? David acknowledged that nothing could contain God, not even the temple he was building. So how can a human being contain God? What does Seaton understand by "Omnipresent" if anything at all? What does he understand by "Omnipotent" if anything at all? So after the ascension of Christ, when according to Seaton the Spirit came with authority to confer new gifts and indwell a soul, did the Omnipresent and Omnipotent, become limited in presence and power? Why would the indwelling Spirit require a sword viz. the ministry of the word? All the confessions speak only of grace of the Spirit is bringing a sinner to faith through the instrumentality of the word. Where do the Bible or the reformed commentators say anything about it being essential for the Spirit to indwell a sinner to make that grace effectual?
John UK wrote: Now as to YOUR question about the Spirit, well of course he comes only once to indwell, but there a multitude of "fillings". The indwelling of the Spirit is the SEAL of the Spirit, the BAPTISM, the ASSURANCE of adoption. And God will not seal you until you believe on Christ and repent of sin.
1. Elisabeth and Zacharias were filled with the Spirit, does that mean the Spirit was indwelling them?
2. At what point are we born-again, prior to believing or after, and does the Holy Spirit indwell in the work of regeneration?
Deut 7: 6-8 is Israel chosen to be a special people simply because God chose to love them or they chose to love HIM?
If so with a few exceptions why did God not love then the rest of the world as we read the OT? Why did Abraham not pray for all of Sodom but only for the righteous in genesis 18 and how is Lot called a just and righteous man in 2 Peter 2? How is an OT believer righteous and just Romans 4: 5, but faith in what Romans 3: 10-26?
Titus 2: 14, 15 'who gave himself for us'. It says the us are to be a peculiar (special) people.
Does this 'us' mean the whole NT world here or simply as verse 12 the 'us' are chosen believers for only such can live godly.
If God has a special chosen people in the OT why is it difficult to accept HE has a special chosen people in the NT. If he passed by other nations and peoples in the OT then why not in the NT? If HE passes by sinners in the OT did he love them? Does he pass by sinners in the NT?
Did Abraham choose God? Did God choose Saul (Paul)?
Why in the NT I read no apostle addreses sinners by quoting John 3: 16 and saying Jesus loves you? Wouldn't that have been approriate in every instance to simply quote that scripture?