But then what does the Bible mean when it says that God created the wicked for the day of evil? (Proverbs 16:4) The word evil has also been translated as disaster and doom, so it has a negative connotation at that verse.
The main problem that I think you have is that you do not separate the temporal and eternal aspects of God's decrees, leading to your statments.
God's election in the Bible is always unto salvation, never damnation. Please get that straight. And sinner's go to hell for their sin, not because God did not adopt them. It is God's adoption of us that saves us in the sense that it changes our hearts from wanting to do evil to wanting to do good. I am not advocating works-righteousness, only that the good we want to do is a result of the adoption of us into God's family.
Now you're going to say that "See it is God not adopting some that damns them!!!" No. The sinner still has the responsibility to repent and believe the Gospel. And those who are not drawn have desire to believe the true Gospel, so why would they?
Yeah, English sucks, but only because it is imprecise on a lot of stuff.
Example, the Greeks have three words for love, meaning different things, eros meaning physical love or attraction; phileo, meaning a close friendship type of love, and agape, meaning an unconditional type of love. English only has "love" and leaves the meaning to context.
But Ill grant, you did catch me in a grammatical error. What I should have said is that reprobation is God's allowance of people to go to their damnation. But here's the thing , God does not force anyone to sin. Get it straight, eternal decrees concern actions that occur in time. That is how Ephesians 1 can say that God adopted His children before the foundation of the world, yet Jesus also says that the Father draws them in time.
Sorry, but election and reprobation are not equal.
Election is God actively saving those whom He adopts, while reprobation is God passively giving people to their destruction.
As to the "Romans 9 refers to nations not people" argument, let me ask you this. Why does Paul consistently use specific persons in this chapter in reference to God's work?
Now don't misunderstand. I see the argument from 9:4 where Paul makes reference to the Israelites. But even then, Paul identifies the nation of Israel, not in the physical sense (9:6) but says that the children of Israel are a nation in the spiritual sense by union with Christ.
But Paul's constant reference of specific individuals seems to trump either of the views that Paul is discussing nations in this chapter.
And even then, one could say we resist God's will everyday, but no matter what we do, as God's Word will accomplish what God desires of it (Isaiah 55:11) and no one can shake the plans of the Lord (Psalm 33:11).
Here's a website that lists Bible verse s that reference divine sovereignity, even over the actions of the wicked. http://home.flash.net/~thinkman/articles/sov1.html
After a while, some would probably side with Marcion with the theological confusion going on today.