Old Time Polygamist wrote:
I've been promoting polygamy for 50 years ... Jesus mentions a wedding of a man with ten women without any condemnation (Gospel of Matthew 25:1-13 - read it!)

Adelphos wrote:
1. It is a fallacy of logic to use one part of the creation story to present a full doctrine of any subject. For you to be consistent with your own usage of the Genesis 2:24 passage, you would need to claim that being single is sin. Eating meat is sin. Working outside of farming is sin. All of the above items are further explained throughout the Bible.

Adelphos wrote:
2. 1 Tim 3:2 has more than one option in the Greek - whether you like that or not - it is a fact!

Adelphos wrote:
Go look up the wored [sic] "one" in 1 Timothy. It may be translated "first" or even as "a". This would agree with the Words of Jesus concerning not taking away from the Law and agree with the entire Old Testament - this is a consistant hermeneutic.

John_for_Christ wrote:
Are you aware that women outnumber men by about 2-5%? Where are the husbands for all those extra women?

You stated that Moses was a polygamist. You could be right but I am only aware of Zipporah, Jethro's daughter, being given to Moses to be his wife. Could you provide the scripture for this assertion?

What I do see clearly is what God had ordained in Gen 2 and Matt 19. I choose to believe that is what God had ordained even though He tolerated polygamy in the OT and it is reflected in the history of mankind being born into this world equally male and female. You, on the other hand, choose to take those verses as a mere suggestions while ignoring the evidence He gave in His providence over procreation.

If everyone believed polygamy was biblical where would the women come from so every man could have three wives? Think!

WSG wrote:
The statement of the two shall become one flesh is in reference to sexual intercorse.

"Or do you not know that he who is joined to a harlot is one body with her? For "the two," He says, "shall become one flesh." 1 Corinthians 6:16-17

Thus, Paul indicates that a man can be one with his wife at the same time as with a harlot.

The two shall become one in every marriage, whether a man with his first wife, or a man with his second wife, etc...

NT Bible Believer wrote:
Its not that she is married to the man and the other wives, but that she is married to the man who is married to the other wives. What I meant in my statements was that additional wives join the family. The wives are not married to each other any more than the children are (none are in fact).
By one flesh, I mean we use this in every day language. We say that he (your family) is your flesh and blood. By joining the family, in a way they become the "spiritual or emotional" flesh and blood of each other (hence "one flesh").

Matt 19:5-6 For this cause shall a man leave father and mother, and shall cleave to his wife: and they twain shall be ***one flesh***. Wherefore they are no more twain, but one flesh. What therefore God hath joined together, let not man put asunder.

John_for_Christ wrote:
Even so, they contain no hint of the number of wives one should marry.

Your turn.

Edit: NT Bible Believer wrote "We already know that twain means two. There is no conflict with a man doing that with any # of women."

This gets more interesting at every twist and turn. This person (and many others before) advocates that it is biblical for a woman to marry another woman!! Kind of hard for a second woman to marry a man married to a woman without being married to both. Perhaps that's why the practice is illegel in most developed countries. Spose? I can't believe it!!

John_for_Christ wrote:
Well, isn't that nice. You can't prove your point, so you just leave.

The Scriptures you provided don't tell God's ideal for marriage. They just say what happens, matter-of-factly. They don't set any kind of limit.

NT Bible Believer wrote:
No one has addressed the verses the sheik gave us.

Matt 19:5-6 For this cause shall a man leave father and mother, and shall cleave to his wife: and they twain shall be one flesh. Wherefore they are no more twain, but one flesh. What therefore God hath joined together, let not man put asunder. (Matt 19:5-6)

If none of you will believe the Father and Son why would you believe us?

I take my leave.

Edit: John_for_Christ,

Just saw your post however I am done with this discussion at least for now. Above in this post is what God has ordained regarding marriage and I stand on His word. You can stand or fall on whatever you want.

Edit 2: "this is hermeneutics 101!"

Really? Can you provide book, chapter and verse from the Holy Spirit insired User's Guide to biblical interpretation? Give me a break, man.

WSG wrote:
God is plainly stating that He has two wives. Of course, we all know that in reality He is not actually married to anyone.

Question for you: At the time of this allegory do you believe there were no men alive in Samaria and Judah... only women and only one in each kingdom? After all the allegory does state two women.... right? Do you believe God? Do you want to understand what He is explaining in the allegory?

WSG wrote:
By the way, I'm not a man.

Thinking Christian wrote:
Yes, we are predestined to be conformed to the image of His Son, but are we conformed at our conversion, thats the question. I would say not. Those who believe in Christ are conformed to His image at His coming. That is when we will be sinless and live in perfection with Christ for eternity. Hope that explains my views better.

Thinking Christian wrote:
Back to my first every post, though.
Christ was elect ( Isa 42v1 & 1 Pet 2v6 ). What as a calvinist do you ( not just you OB, but others who are discussing with us ) think Christ was elect to. Surely not salvation, and if not why do you not use the same principles you use to interpret this verse to interpret those other verses about election.

WSG wrote:
Hmmm so, when God says that he has two wives that means nothing? Remember, God is NEVER referred to as doing ANYTHING sinful or wrong. If God feels that polygamy is wrong, He would NEVER use an allegory that uses polygamy. Or is that wrong?

Which things are an allegory: for these are the two covenants; the one from the mount Sinai, which gendereth to bondage, which is Agar. For this Agar is mount Sinai in Arabia, and answereth to Jerusalem which now is, and is in bondage with her children. (Gal 4:24-25)

An allegory uses literal physical objects/persons to express a spiritual reality as seen from God's perspective.

Behold, the days come, saith the Lord GOD, that I will send a famine in the land, not a famine of bread, nor a thirst for water, but of hearing the words of the LORD: And they shall wander from sea to sea, and from the north even to the east, they shall run to and fro to seek the word of the LORD, and shall not find [it]. (Amos 8:11-12)

Richard T. Shank wrote:
Observation Post: A man can be one flesh to each one of his wives. Others think that this is only talking about his first wife. Other wives can join that one flesh.

Richard T. Shank wrote:
Might it be that women need polygamy as well as men. Yes and its a good thing.
Isaiah 4:1-2
1 And in that day seven women shall take hold of one man, saying, We will eat our own bread, and wear our own apparel: only let us be called by thy name, to take away our reproach.
2 In that day shall THE BRANCH OF THE LORD be beautiful and glorious, and the fruit of the earth shall be excellent and comely for them that are escaped of Israel.

Obviously you don't realize the passage you quoted is a metaphore for the marriage of the Lamb (The Branch of Jesse).

Rev 19:7-8 Let us be glad and rejoice, and give honour to him: for the marriage of the Lamb is come, and his wife hath made herself ready. And to her was granted that she should be arrayed in fine linen, clean and white: for the fine linen is the righteousness of saints.

Jer 31:27 Behold, the days come, saith the LORD, that I will sow the house of Israel and the house of Judah with the seed of man, and with the seed of beast (gentiles).

Dr. Phil wrote:
Nothing good comes from polygamy.

He found him in a desert land, and in the waste howling wilderness; he led him about, he instructed him, he kept him as the apple of his eye. (Deut 32:10)

Even though I don't find polygamy specifically condemned in scripture it is clear that God has ordained marriage to be between one man and one woman. Why anyone would want to tempt God by practicing that which is clearly contrary to what He has specifically ordained is beyond me.

moonj69 wrote:
If polygamy is so wrong ... why does Jesus never speak out against it?

For this cause shall a man leave father and mother, and shall cleave to his wife: and ***they twain*** shall be one flesh? Wherefore they are no more twain, but one flesh. What therefore God hath joined together, let not man put asunder. (Matt 19:5-6)

Do you know what "twain" means? Paul leaves no doubt.

know ye not that he which is joined to an harlot is one body? for ***two***, saith he, shall be one flesh. (1 Cor 6:16)

Obviously Paul is speaking here of one who has put away the wife of his youth which God hates but in the following verse he quotes Jesus.

For this cause shall a man leave his father and mother, and shall be joined unto his wife, and ***they two*** shall be one flesh. (Eph 5:31)