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Page 1 | Page 19 · Found: 500 user comments posted recently. |
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10/29/13 5:09 PM |
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In the bible, the appostles "baptized" is always in reference to a distinct physical act, and never in reference to preaching as you arrive at it.
J4J wrote: Agreed. The physical act was laying of hands. YOU ADMIT NOW THAT THE COMMAND TO BAPTIZE IS NOT MET THROUGH PREACHING.J4J wrote: CORRECT. However, that doesn't change the fact that the disciples first preached and also baptized by the laying on of hands. I consider that baptizing, right? Peter and John laid their hands on the Samaritans and they (as a result of being baptized in a physical action of laying on of hands) were filled with the Holy Spirit. "baptized in a physical action of laying on of hands"But I asked you that at the start - if it was a distinct physcal act - like water baptism? The GC "to baptize" then had to be fulfilled through laying on of hands? (For in preaching, God had to be commanding God to baptize) The GC cammand was to BAPTIZE WITH THE HOLY SPIRIT THROUGH LAYING ON OF HANDS! A distinct seperate act from preaching. Right? |
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10/28/13 5:31 PM |
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"In the command to preach, if the desciples preach then the desciples is said to have preached. If the desciples set up and God preaches, are the desciples said to have preached? Are the two literally the same?" I put this to you. And you answered NO! John for JESUS wrote: No, they are different NO! It is not baptizing either! In as clear an articulation of what you've been calling "baptizing", you admit it's not.You assert a label "literal baptism" by repeating a mantra "in preaching they preached, in baptizing..literally" You keep it at this surface level where you simply assert the label. Because examining the legitamacy of steps at how you arrive at your assertion forces you to admit NO, it's different. You admit that the command to baptize is not met through preaching. In the bible, the appostles "baptized" is always in reference to a distinct physical act, and never in reference to preaching as you arrive at it. But you're crafty. Even after you admit, you will override and repeat your mantra. You assert your label, not arrive at it. Because it is not honest. Your arguement method is clever and crafty. Always on the surface and keep it shifting! |
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10/27/13 10:12 PM |
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At question is the command to "baptize" in the GC. No one questioned the fact of the baptism of the Holy Spirit that takes place as a result of preaching. This baptism God does. The existence of this baptism is not at dispute, but this is where you keep steering it to get a win. Does God make a disnction between the two? "One must mean one, literally!" The question is, does lieraly mean literally? In the command to preach, the deciples preached. The command to baptize, they preached. They had full control in preachng. But since to preach is literally the same as to baptize, the deciples baptized and had full control in "every way". The deceptive way something is twisted to say something. Paul in all his preaching with all the conversions never considered those baptisms to mean the same as the one commanded. Because he talked about doing this distinct baptism only a few times. For a Christian that would suffice to bring about a clearer understanding on this. This exposes J4 and his clever method of deception. J4 does not like to walk through clear steps. J4 keeps shifting so no consistent arguement can be developed against what he asserts. |
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10/26/13 2:22 PM |
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John for JESUS wrote: 1) The command to baptize meant they were to baptize 2) The command for them to go and baptize meant just that, literally. That's what they literally did! So, it wasn't out of their hands. You peach, God baptizes. Baptizing is in Gods hands exclusively! But you want everyone to agree that this is LITERALLY the same as what you posted.In preaching, baptISM may happen. But baptIZING doesn't, otherwise you'd baptize everyone. You agreed that "to preach" is not = "to baptize" You want everyone to agree that - You preach God may or may not baptize literally means "YOU BATIZED". 1Cor1:17 "For Christ did not send me to baptize, but to preach" Does Paul not think that the two are seperate acts? That you can actually baptize? On it's own? To believe what you believe, one has to believe LIKE you believe first. You have to start with a mass of jumbled confusions and contradictions |
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10/26/13 8:09 AM |
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John for JESUS wrote: there is a call to go and preach/teach .., baptize The command to "baptize" means that you preach. And the resultant baptism (if there is any, since it's the work of God & is out of your hands) is what, "to BAPTIZE" means.For someone who started out a staunch literalist-"one must mean one", you sure did an about face. To baptize really means baptism. The command to do is really what is out of your hands. "The deciples went out and obeyed the GC in every way. They preached" And on & on it goes. Your posts are a jumble of contradictions & confusions. I showed you that preach does not mean baptize. You agreed! And then you dive right back into the confusing muck - "preaching was part of the Great Commission and I am talking about preaching as it pertains to baptism in the Great Commission". Paul is able to make a clean distinction between preach & baptize - 1Cor1:17 "For Christ did not send me to baptize, but to preach" You can't keep batize & baptism apart. Literally! |
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10/25/13 7:34 AM |
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J4 wrote: Jesus' disciples did obey. They preached, baptized by laying on hands Obey the Great Commission on baptism? No they didn't obey. The GC was a call for the one who was going to baptize,not the one recieving the baptism."Go ye & baptize!" You keep throwing preaching in there even though you AGREED preaching isn't baptizing -see point #3 of your last post. How then to baptize? By laying on of hands of course! But this as you say fell to the wayside a long time ago.
J4 wrote: No, not anymore. Though they sometimes did. The most we can do now, it seems, is preach the gospel which results in those who hear and obey to be baptized in the Holy Spirit The GC was given to the believer who was called to do the baptizing &make deciples. You keep giving us the one's recieving the baptism as your fullfilment to the GC. Because that's all you have left to fall back on. Your posts are a jumble of confusion. Because you're the author of it, not the Bible. |
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10/24/13 4:18 PM |
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John for JESUS wrote: Jesus spoke the Great Commission specifically to His disciples, but it still applies to Christians Applies to all Christians!I asked if this baptism of the Holy Spirit was administered through a physical act - like you would give someone water baptism? You replied- John for JESUS wrote: No, not anymore. Though they sometimes did. The most we can do now, it seems, is preach the gospel which results in those who hear and obey to be baptized in the Holy Spirit. Sometimes ... lay hands?So we have two competing ways to baptize with the Holy Spirit - through preaching, and laying on of hands. The command, "Go ye therefor, baptizing them.." In preaching, baptISM may happen. But baptIZING doesn't, otherwise you'd baptize everyone. No, in preaching you preach. The command is therefor given to do something over which, either way, you have no capability to obey. "But Jesus meant that, go preach and baptism will happen?". Some baptism may happen or no baptism may happen, you have no control. The great commision command is to baptize, but the only active thing you do is - preach. To "baptize" couldn't have meant to "preach" |
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10/24/13 9:49 AM |
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shane wrote: Carl from England... Fool? Remember our Lords words," if anyone says you fool, will be in danger of hell fire". Be careful brother. I don't agree with Driscoll, but, let us fight the good fight with scripture, not name calling. The word "fool" is an English translation. Not to worry Carl |
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10/24/13 9:03 AM |
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I don't agree with the way JM has painted "easy believism". He sets up extreme examples so that in contrast, his point sounds more acceptable.I agree with most all that he says. Except that he has foisted a religious workout that everyone MUST live up to without regard to Gods hand moving in real life. McARTHUR wrote: Ninth, Scripture teaches that genuine believers may stumble and fall, but they will persevere in the faith Can you determine this period of fall? If you don't know when God restore him, then when you look at this person in the fallen state you have to declare this "genuine believer" to be unsaved. Where is the line that tells you how much good works meets this standard for salvation and how much comes just short of this? |
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10/23/13 9:57 PM |
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John for JESUS wrote: CV... I don't believe it happens like it did before with the evidence of speaking in tongues (though some may argue). However, the baptism should be manifest by the fruits of the Spirit. No the administration of this baptism of the Holy Spirit - is it done through a physical act - like you would give someone a water baptism? |
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10/23/13 9:52 PM |
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True saving faith is not apart from repentance. JM puts too much emphasis on the showiness of religiosness to declare someone saved. Fact is, salvation is of the heart no man can see. Someone can show all the outward sign, read the bible & attend bible study, and not be saved. Zech7:5 "was it for me you fasted?",Isiah58How JM presents easy belivsm, I agree with. But JM would have a problem with inviting someone down the isl after a sermon because that would also be easy belivsm. Everyone is invited to know Jesus and it's not for you to say if it's real or not Do you have to go through some rigor to keep your good standing to stay saved, or at least to tell God you are keeping your end of the deal? Is your faith& repentance not a gift? Is He not the author & the finisher & the sustainer of your faith? We take our cares and our heavy yokes and cast it upon Jesus. That IS easy then. We are saved by pure grace, not of our doing. Why then this emphasis to show something? The Holy Spirit works in our lifes to conform us to the image of Christ. We are not called to our faith nor to meet it's standards but to the Lord Himself. He is both Lord& Saviour. |
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