Scott McMahan
Scott McMahan  |  Internet
Email Us!Our Website
Our Blog
Older
Newer
Blog
Post+
Search
  
Filter By

Bible Versions - Why Change Some Not All?
TUESDAY, JULY 18, 2006
Posted by: Scott McMahan | more..
1,650+ views | 50+ clicks
One theory says that Alexandrian heretics changed the Greek text of the Bible to support gnosticism. I am particularly curious as to why they would make a change in one place, but not in all places. This is true not only of parallel passages like Eph 1:7 and Col 1:14, but moreso of passages like 1 Jn 4:2 and 1 Jn 4:3. The latter of these two repeats a passage from the former. If this change was done out of malice to the text, in order to force it to conform to the heresy of the gnostics, why would they not change the verse above it? Similarly, Mk. 9:44,46,48 have the same text in the KJV and TR, but in the Alexandrian text, verses 44 and 46 do not repeat the phrase about the worm that appears in 48. If this change was made to affect doctrine, why would it not be made in all three places? I have never seen an explanation for this. If it were true that modern Bibles, and the modern Greek text upon which they were based, completely deleted a phrase of this nature on the blood or on eternal punishment from the entire Bible, I would throw out my modern Bibles and never look at them again. But this isn't the case. The doctrines aren't completely removed.

Category:  King James Plus

post new | clone this | rss feed | blog top »
Our Blog
Older
Newer
Top