I'm wondering... If I'm a member of a Presbyterian church who was baptized as a baby, and I no longer agree anymore with the practice of infant baptism, could I use the logic of I Cor. 7:14 to say that I want to have my own baby baptized while NOT agreeing with the practice? I'm asking because I know of Presbyterian churches that will bar membership for a family if the children are not baptized, so could I Cor. 7:14 be used as an argument of the validity of baptism of a child of one who does NOT agree with baptism of infants?