If sex with your wife is incomplete (fruitless, by whatever your method of choice), how is this not akin to gay (fruitless) sex?

Responder wrote:
Nonsense.
Firsty openness to children is not what the law said.
Secondly, Christians and the Bible have always recognized the validity of marriages of barren women.
Your theology is just as sick and warped and perverted as those you presume to critique.

Even the government has known that openness to children via "ordinary and complete" language is the very bedrock of the covenant of marriage.

Now that the average Christian has had synthetic (i.e. incomplete and infertile) sex mediated by a condom, the pill or sterilization for 50 years, thus violating even the government's definition of marriage, in all fairness, the UK desires to redefine marriage accordingly.

As we celebrate the golden anniversary of almost universal sterile Christian sexual activity, the church, itself, has inadvertently ushered in a brave new world of global gay (i.e. fruitless) marriage laws.

And in the US, the government is having the church fund even more unfruitful (a prototype of gay) Christian sex.

"We have met the enemy and he is us."
-Pogo